Algebra Discussion

For the intermediate value theorem why do you think it is necessary for the signs of f(a) and f(b) to be different in order to guarantee there is a zero between a and b.

If it is the case that the signs of f(a) and f(b) are the same, does that mean the function f(x) cannot have a zero between a and b? Explain.

Needs to be 75 or more words.

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